How it can be termed as partiality or prejudice? Considering the number of men who publish, the percentage of women authors is very small (7-8%) and it varies from country to country, and among different subjects. How can anyone compare such variables; it is meaningless. Gender inequality is applicable for common practices. Dr M Koteswara Rao Former librarian, UoH

On 07-Aug-2021, at 8:01 AM, Padmanabha Vyasamoorthy wrote:

This is a revelation and unexpected! As 'man' is a part of 'woman', literally, how can men be so partial and prejudiced?

///Penn Today: Women are undercited and men are overcited in communication https://penntoday.upenn.edu/news/women-are-undercited-and-men-are-overcited-.... "A new study from the Addiction, Health, & Adolescence (AHA!) Lab at the Annenberg School for Communication found that men are overcited and women are undercited in the field of communication. The researchers’ findings indicate that this problem is most persistent in papers authored by men." ///

Dr P Vyasamoorthy / 9490804278

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